Location: Shelby County, Texas.
My family has a piece of property that was bought by an ancestor in late 1800s. It was never part of a will so as far as we know it just exists and no one can do anything with it. I have a relative who is trying to sell it. There could be upwards to 1000 or more heirs. This relative of mine is thinking that if no one makes a claim to it that they have a right to do something with it. I’ve already talked with my probate attorney about it, and she stated that it would be a logistical nightmare. The taxes have always been paid on it by my part of the family. The relative who is trying to take adverse possession (I don’t know what else to call it), just recently started paying the taxes on it few years ago, beating my part of the family into making the tax payment first. Does he have a leg to stand on and what legal outcomes could entail from the situation?